The Mean Value Theorem

The mean value theorem (equality)

The mean value equality

Mean value theorem. Let ff be continuous on [a ; b][a \,;\, b] and differentiable on ]a ; b[\left]a \,;\, b\right[, with a<ba < b. There exists at least one cc in ]a ; b[\left]a \,;\, b\right[ such that

f(b)−f(a)=f′(c) (b−a)f(b) - f(a) = f'(c)\,(b - a)

In other words, the slope of the chord joining the two ends of the curve is attained by at least one tangent:

f′(c)=f(b)−f(a)b−af'(c) = \frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b - a}

Rolle's theorem is the special case f(a)=f(b)f(a) = f(b), and conversely the mean value theorem is proved from Rolle.

Proof from Rolle

The idea is to subtract the chord in order to reduce to Rolle's case. For xx in [a ; b][a \,;\, b], set:

g(x)=f(x)−f(a)−f(b)−f(a)b−a (x−a)g(x) = f(x) - f(a) - \frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b - a}\,(x - a)

The function gg is continuous on [a ; b][a \,;\, b] and differentiable on ]a ; b[\left]a \,;\, b\right[, as the sum of ff and an affine function. We compute

g(a)=0andg(b)=f(b)−f(a)−f(b)−f(a)b−a (b−a)=0g(a) = 0 \qquad \text{and} \qquad g(b) = f(b) - f(a) - \frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b - a}\,(b - a) = 0

Rolle's theorem therefore applies to gg: there exists cc in ]a ; b[\left]a \,;\, b\right[ such that g′(c)=0g'(c) = 0. Now

g′(x)=f′(x)−f(b)−f(a)b−ag'(x) = f'(x) - \frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b - a}

hence f′(c)=f(b)−f(a)b−af'(c) = \dfrac{f(b) - f(a)}{b - a}, which is the desired conclusion.

Cauchy's version

By replacing the affine function with a second function gg, the same scheme gives Cauchy's generalization: if ff and gg are continuous on [a ; b][a \,;\, b] and differentiable on the open interval, there exists cc such that

(f(b)−f(a)) g′(c)=(g(b)−g(a)) f′(c)\left(f(b) - f(a)\right)\,g'(c) = \left(g(b) - g(a)\right)\,f'(c)

It is this version that underlies L'Hôpital's rule, and we recover the mean value theorem by taking g(x)=xg(x) = x.

Classic pitfall

The theorem is false for complex-valued or vector-valued functions. Consider f(t)=eitf(t) = e^{it} on [0 ; 2π][0 \,;\, 2\pi]. We have f(2π)−f(0)=0f(2\pi) - f(0) = 0, whereas

f′(t)=i eitsatisfies∣f′(t)∣=1≠0for every tf'(t) = i\,e^{it} \qquad \text{satisfies} \qquad \left\lvert f'(t) \right\rvert = 1 \neq 0 \quad \text{for every } t

No cc works. What survives in this setting is the mean value inequality, the subject of the next lesson — and that is precisely why it is the tool actually used in analysis.