The mean value equality
Mean value theorem. Let f be continuous on [a;b] and differentiable on ]a;b[, with a<b. There exists at least one c in ]a;b[ such that
f(b)−f(a)=f′(c)(b−a)
In other words, the slope of the chord joining the two ends of the curve is attained by at least one tangent:
f′(c)=b−af(b)−f(a)
Rolle's theorem is the special case f(a)=f(b), and conversely the mean value theorem is proved from Rolle.
Proof from Rolle
The idea is to subtract the chord in order to reduce to Rolle's case. For x in [a;b], set:
g(x)=f(x)−f(a)−b−af(b)−f(a)(x−a)
The function g is continuous on [a;b] and differentiable on ]a;b[, as the sum of f and an affine function. We compute
g(a)=0andg(b)=f(b)−f(a)−b−af(b)−f(a)(b−a)=0
Rolle's theorem therefore applies to g: there exists c in ]a;b[ such that g′(c)=0. Now
g′(x)=f′(x)−b−af(b)−f(a)
hence f′(c)=b−af(b)−f(a), which is the desired conclusion.
Cauchy's version
By replacing the affine function with a second function g, the same scheme gives Cauchy's generalization: if f and g are continuous on [a;b] and differentiable on the open interval, there exists c such that
(f(b)−f(a))g′(c)=(g(b)−g(a))f′(c)
It is this version that underlies L'Hôpital's rule, and we recover the mean value theorem by taking g(x)=x.
Classic pitfall
The theorem is false for complex-valued or vector-valued functions. Consider f(t)=eit on [0;2π]. We have f(2π)−f(0)=0, whereas
f′(t)=ieitsatisfies∣f′(t)∣=1=0for every t
No c works. What survives in this setting is the mean value inequality, the subject of the next lesson — and that is precisely why it is the tool actually used in analysis.